PLEASE EXPLAIN THIS

In 1895, the United States Supreme Court ruled a direct income tax to be unconstitutional in the case of Pollack v. Farmers Loan and Trust. In 1913 the 16th Amendment, the income tax amendment, was added to the Constitution.  An official IRS publication says the 16th Amendment to the Constitution requires citizens to pay tax on their income. In ruling on that amendment shortly after it was passed, the US Supreme Court said it; “conferred no new power of taxation”…” it does not extend the taxing power to new or excepted subjects”…” did not authorize any new type of tax”… “A capitation or other “direct” tax it certainly is not”.
So, if a direct tax on income was unconstitutional in 1895, and if the 16th Amendment did not extend the taxing power to new subjects, then how is our income, our compensation for labor, subject to the income tax?  PLEASE EXPLAIN THIS

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